Four questions:
1) Is it possible to get round ‘proof of funds’ when you don’t actually have them? – If so, how come it’s referred to as ‘proof’?
2) I cannot for the life of me see what there is in this for DH if this proclamation is actually from PS. ???
3) DH has already spent a fair bit of money – if this document happens to be correct – to what purpose was all that expenditure?
4) Why would DH opt to make a public fool of himself?
